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Hi I would like to run a function in microcontroller_1 in another microcontroller_2 is it possible? For example i want to execute this code in microcontroller_2 via microcontroller_1:
LPC_GPIO2->FIOSET=0xffffffff;
or for another example i want to ruuning this code from micro_1 to micro_2:
__disable_irq(); command[0] = 57; // Reinvoke ISP command iap_entry (command, result);
I mean i want to sent above code from micro_1 to micro_2 and expect to running this code in micro_2. Is it possible?
OK Thank you very much
Can it run 8080 code or 6502 pascal?
Only on February 29th on odd numbered years.
Yes, in CRP2 you can only do a full erase - not erase a single sector.
But you don't need to be able to erase a single sector to solve the issue with CRP2. You erase the full chip. Then reprogram the unit with a corrected software.
The only time that it isn't an option to do a full erase to recover the chip/board is if you don't have any new software to program the chip with after you have done the full erase. I.e. your goal is to steal the current content of the chip and so want at most to erase the boot sector and destroy a part of the boot loader while leaving the business logic part of the application code in an unprotected state.
A legitimate company is almost totally unable to lose their source code. And even if they do lose all source code, they would still normally have sent download files to the factory so they can program new chips with the last released version while they learn how stupid it was to not have proper source code backup and recreates the lost source code. So a legitimate company would still not need to recover the contents already programmed into the chip. Hence, any request to just erase a single sector instead of doing a full chip erase to recover from CRP2 is most definitely an attempt to circumvent a copy-protection mechanism to gain improper access to someone else's intellectual property.
Yes completely true.