Hi all, In RTX we can assign a function as a task with the _task_ #NO tag. When calling os_create_task we just pass this task number as a parameter. Assume one has to use banking, in this case, how does RTX identify, in which bank the function exists ? from where does rtx get information about the banks of any task at runtime ? regards pachu
1) Never. (lack of) experience is not an excuse for making something less than optimum. YES... IT... IS... That's been my whole point in the past few math posts. Optimum from an engineering perspective is NOT always optimum from a business perspective. For instance, if a technology is new and disruptive, companies that get the first product out the door that supports it often capture and maintain the highest market share even if the next product is technically superior in every way. nobody is treated as a "novice" when they qualify their statements. That's just not true. It wasn't more than a few weeks ago that someone posted a question about how to get the compiler to generate a CALL rather than optimizing it into a JMP. He qualified it by saying basically "I know it's bad, but it has to be that way." No one (except perhaps Stefan) jumped into answer mode. Instead, the messages were along the lines of: "Why?" "It doesn't have to be done." "You must write in assembly." "You shouldn't have written it that way." etc. I can understand if people don't want to answer a question that they think will lead someone into bad territory, but why not just refrain from answering? Instead, there's some motivation that make everyone feel they need to shepherd the flock of 8051 developers into greener pastures. This sort of thing HAS to hurt Keil if new users of their products leave here feeling dejected, unhelped, and insulted. I know that everyone here that answers these posts appreciates the quality of their products and it's a shame to diminish something that should really be improving people's opinions of their tools and the community of developers that use them.